Question

If A & B are two events, such that P(1) $eq$ 0 & P(2) $eq$ 1,

then P ig( \frac { \overline { \mathrm { A } } } { \overline { \mathrm { B } } } \big) =

• A.
• B. $\frac { \mathrm { P } ( \overline { \mathrm { A } } ) } { \mathrm { P } ( \overline { \mathrm { B } } ) }$
• C. 1–P $\left( \frac { \mathrm { A } } { \mathrm { B } } \right)$
• D. None

Answer 1

Answer: (A)

Answer 2

P $\binom { \overline { \mathrm { A } } } { \overline { \mathrm { B } } }$ = =