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Question

Mathematics Question on Probability

I f F and F are independent events such that O<P(E)<1O < P(E) < 1 and O<P(F)<1O < P (F ) < 1, then

A

E and F are mutually exclusive

B

E and F c^c (the complement of the event F) are independent

C

E c^c and Fc^c are independen

D

P(E/F)+P(Ec/F)=1P (E /F )+ P(E^c /F) = 1

Answer

P(E/F)+P(Ec/F)=1P (E /F )+ P(E^c /F) = 1

Explanation

Solution

Since, E and F are independent events. Therefore,
P(EF)=P(E).P(F)0,P (E \cap F ) = P(E) . P(F) \ne 0, so EE and FF are not mutually exclusive events.
Now, P(EF)=P(E)P(EF)=P(E)P(E).P(F)P(E \cap \overline{F})=P(E)-P(E \cap F)=P(E)-P(E).P(F)
=P(E)[1P(F)]=P(E)P(F)\, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, \, =P(E)[1-P(F)]=P(E)-P(\overline{F})
and P(EF)=P(EF)=1P(EF) \, \, \, P(\overline{E} \cap \overline{F})=P(\overline{E \cup F})=1-P(E \cup F)
\hspace20mm \, \, \, \, \, =1-[1-P(\overline{E}),P(\overline{F})]
\hspace30mm \, \, \, [\because \, E and F are independent]
\hspace20mm \, \, P(\overline{E}).P(\overline{F})
So, EE andF\overline{F} as well as E\overline{E} and F\overline{F} are independent events.
Now, P(E/F)+P(EP (E / F) + P(\overline{E} / F\overline{F})=P(EF)+P(EF)P(F)\frac{P(E \cap F)+P(\overline{E} \cap \overline{F})}{P(F)}
\hspace20mm \frac{P(F)}{P(F)}=1