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Question: How would you find the inverse of \(y = {x^2}\) and is it a function?...

How would you find the inverse of y=x2y = {x^2} and is it a function?

Explanation

Solution

Here we must know that whenever we are given the function as yy in the terms of xx and we need to find the inverse, we actually need to find xx in terms of yy and then we will get inverse of that function be replacing at last in inverse y by xy{\text{ by }}x and we must know that for every domain if there is a single element in the codomain then it is a function otherwise not.

Complete step by step solution:
Here we are given to find the inverse of the function y=x2y = {x^2}
So we are given y=f(x)y = f\left( x \right) as it is the function of xx and now we know that whenever we need to calculate the inverse we just need to find xx in terms of yy
So we can say that y=x2y = {x^2}
Therefore x=±yx = \pm \sqrt y
As xx is the inverse of yy we can put x=f1(y)x = {f^{ - 1}}\left( y \right)
f1(y)=±y{f^{ - 1}}\left( y \right) = \pm \sqrt y
Replacing y by xy{\text{ by }}x
f1(x)=±x{f^{ - 1}}\left( x \right) = \pm \sqrt x

Hence we get the inverse as ±x\pm \sqrt x

Now we know that for every domain if there is a single element in the codomain then it is a function otherwise not.
Here we can see that for every value of xx we will get two values in the codomain one positive and one negative. Hence it does not have one value. So it is not a function.

Note:
Here if we would have only x\sqrt x instead of ±x\pm \sqrt x then it would be a function as then there would be only a single value in the codomain for every value in the domain.