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Question: How do you solve \(x-\ln x=0\)?...

How do you solve xlnx=0x-\ln x=0?

Explanation

Solution

We recall the domain and range of the identity function f1(x)=x{{f}_{1}}\left( x \right)=x and the logarithmic functionf2(x)=lnx{{f}_{2}}\left( x \right)= \ln x. We recall the solutions of the given function f(x)=xlnxf\left( x \right)=x-\ln x will be at the point of intersection of the curves f1(x)=x{{f}_{1}}\left( x \right)=x and f2(x)=lnx{{f}_{2}}\left( x \right)=\ln x. We plot the curve and see if there are any points of intersection. $$$$

Complete step-by-step solution:
We are given the following equation to solve
xlnx=0......(1)x-\ln x=0......\left( 1 \right)
We can write the above equation as
x=lnxx=\ln x
We are given two functions one is identity function which we denote as f1(x)=x{{f}_{1}}\left( x \right)=x and the logarithmic function f2(x)=lnx{{f}_{2}}\left( x \right)=\ln x. We know that the graph of f1(x)=x{{f}_{1}}\left( x \right)=x is a line passing through origin whose slope is 1 which means inclined at an angle 45{{45}^{\circ }}. We know that graph of logarithm function f2(x)=lnx{{f}_{2}}\left( x \right)=\ln x is the symmetrical curve of the natural exponential function ex{{e}^{x}}.
We also know that the identity function f1(x)=x{{f}_{1}}\left( x \right)=x takes real numbers and the same real numbers but logarithmic function f2(x)=lnx{{f}_{2}}\left( x \right)=\ln x takes positive real values and returns real number values. We see that for all x>0x>0 we have f1(x)>f2(x){{f}_{1}}\left( x \right)>{{f}_{2}}\left( x \right). We can verify it by putting values 1e,1,e,e2,...\dfrac{1}{e},1,e,{{e}^{2}},... in f1(x){{f}_{1}}\left( x \right) and f2(x){{f}_{2}}\left( x \right).

& {{f}_{1}}\left( \dfrac{1}{e} \right)=\dfrac{1}{e},{{f}_{2}}\left( \dfrac{1}{e} \right)=-1 \\\ & {{f}_{1}}\left( 1 \right)=1,{{f}_{2}}\left( 1 \right)=0=\ln 1=0 \\\ & {{f}_{1}}\left( e \right)=e,{{f}_{2}}\left( e \right)=\ln e=1 \\\ & {{f}_{1}}\left( {{e}^{2}} \right)={{e}^{2}},{{f}_{3}}\left( {{e}^{2}} \right)=\ln {{e}^{2}}=2 \\\ \end{aligned}$$ We can see that for all $x>0$ we have ${{f}_{1}}\left( x \right)>{{f}_{2}}\left( x \right)$. So ${{f}_{1}}\left( x \right)=x,{{f}_{2}}\left( x \right)=\ln x$ will never intersect each other. We know that the given equation $x-\ln x$ will have solution at point of intersection of the curves ${{f}_{1}}\left( x \right)=x$ and ${{f}_{2}}\left( x \right)=\ln x$. So there will not be any solution for $x-\ln x=0$. We draw the graph below. $$$$ ![](https://www.vedantu.com/question-sets/e9aaa58e-c8b4-4296-8ebf-475e04cad5688933067294012731954.png) **Note:** We can alternatively raise both sides of the given equation $x-\ln x=0$ with the base of natural logarithm to have ${{e}^{x-\ln x}}={{e}^{0}}=1$ fro which we get ${{e}^{x}}=x$. We can solve that also by plotting the curve and we shall not get any solution because that ${{e}^{x}}>x$ for all real $x$.