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Question

Question: How do you show that \[{e^{ - ix}} = \cos x - i\sin x\] ?...

How do you show that eix=cosxisinx{e^{ - ix}} = \cos x - i\sin x ?

Explanation

Solution

Hint : Given identity is one of the trigonometric forms of a complex number. And it is another form of Euler’s identity and we can prove this identity by making use of Taylor’s series or maclaurin’s series expansions of sinx\sin x , cosx\cos x , ex{e^x}

Complete step by step solution:
To prove the given identity let us first write out the identities in Taylor’s series for sinx\sin x , cosx\cos x , ex{e^x} sinx=xx33!+x55!...\sin x = x - \dfrac{{{x^3}}}{{3!}} + \dfrac{{{x^5}}}{{5!}}...
cosx=1x22!+x44!...\cos x = 1 - \dfrac{{{x^2}}}{{2!}} + \dfrac{{{x^4}}}{{4!}}...
ex=1+x+x22!+x33!+x44!...{e^x} = 1 + x + \dfrac{{{x^2}}}{{2!}} + \dfrac{{{x^3}}}{{3!}} + \dfrac{{{x^4}}}{{4!}}...
so we will have,
eix=1+(ix)+(ix)22!+(ix)33!+(ix)44!...{e^{ - ix}} = 1 + \left( { - ix} \right) + \dfrac{{{{\left( { - ix} \right)}^2}}}{{2!}} + \dfrac{{{{\left( { - ix} \right)}^3}}}{{3!}} + \dfrac{{{{\left( { - ix} \right)}^4}}}{{4!}}...
We know that the value of i2=1{i^2} = - 1 , substituting it in the above expansion we get
eix=1ixx22!ix33!+x44!...{e^{ - ix}} = 1 - ix - \dfrac{{{x^2}}}{{2!}} - i\dfrac{{{x^3}}}{{3!}} + \dfrac{{{x^4}}}{{4!}}...
Rearranging the terms in the above expansion, we get
eix=(1x22!+x44!...)i(xx33!+x55!...){e^{ - ix}} = \left( {1 - \dfrac{{{x^2}}}{{2!}} + \dfrac{{{x^4}}}{{4!}}...} \right) - i\left( {x - \dfrac{{{x^3}}}{{3!}} + \dfrac{{{x^5}}}{{5!}}...} \right)
And now we can see that the first part of the equation is the expansion of sinx\sin x
And the second part of the equation is the expansion of cosx\cos x
So, the above equation can be written as
eix=(cosx)i(sinx){e^{ - ix}} = (\cos x) - i(\sin x)
Hence the required proof.

Note : The Taylor Series, or Taylor Polynomial, is a representation of a function as an infinite sum of terms calculated from the values of its derivatives at a single point. A Maclaurin Polynomial, is a special case of the Taylor Polynomial, that uses zero as our single point. And in the above problem we used ii it is an imaginary number.