Solveeit Logo

Question

Question: How do you prove \({\tan ^{ - 1}}x + {\tan ^{ - 1}}(\dfrac{1}{x}) = \dfrac{\pi }{2}\) for \(x > 0\)?...

How do you prove tan1x+tan1(1x)=π2{\tan ^{ - 1}}x + {\tan ^{ - 1}}(\dfrac{1}{x}) = \dfrac{\pi }{2} for x>0x > 0?

Explanation

Solution

Given equation is a trigonometric identity with inverse trigonometric functions. Inverse trigonometric functions are inverse functions of trigonometric functions, with restricted domains, used to obtain angle from trigonometric ratios. We have to simplify the LHS in such terms as to evaluate the value of LHS as π2\dfrac{\pi }{2}. We have to keep the value of xx under the constraint x>0x > 0 at every step in the solution.

Formula used:
1tanθ=cotθ\dfrac{1}{{\tan \theta }} = \cot \theta
tana=cot(π2a)\tan a = \cot (\dfrac{\pi }{2} - a)

Complete step by step solution:
We have to prove that tan1x+tan1(1x)=π2{\tan ^{ - 1}}x + {\tan ^{ - 1}}(\dfrac{1}{x}) = \dfrac{\pi }{2} for x>0x > 0.
We start with the LHS, i.e. tan1x+tan1(1x){\tan ^{ - 1}}x + {\tan ^{ - 1}}(\dfrac{1}{x}). We see that two inverse trigonometric functions are added in the LHS: tan1x{\tan ^{ - 1}}x and tan1(1x){\tan ^{ - 1}}(\dfrac{1}{x}). We have to simplify these functions.
First we try to simplify the second term, i.e. tan1(1x){\tan ^{ - 1}}(\dfrac{1}{x})
Let us assume that tan1(1x)=θ{\tan ^{ - 1}}(\dfrac{1}{x}) = \theta
Then by inversion of the function tan1{\tan ^{ - 1}} from left to right side, we get,
1x=tanθ x=1tanθ=cotθ θ=cot1x  \dfrac{1}{x} = \tan \theta \\\ \Rightarrow x = \dfrac{1}{{\tan \theta }} = \cot \theta \\\ \Rightarrow \theta = {\cot ^{ - 1}}x \\\
Therefore, tan1(1x)=θ=cot1x{\tan ^{ - 1}}(\dfrac{1}{x}) = \theta = {\cot ^{ - 1}}x, for x>0x > 0.
Thus, the LHS becomes,
tan1x+tan1(1x)=tan1x+cot1x{\tan ^{ - 1}}x + {\tan ^{ - 1}}(\dfrac{1}{x}) = {\tan ^{ - 1}}x + {\cot ^{ - 1}}x
Now to further simplify, we assume that tan1x=a{\tan ^{ - 1}}x = a.
Then again by inversion of the function tan1{\tan ^{ - 1}} from left to right side, we get,
x=tanax = \tan a
Using the identity tana=cot(π2a)\tan a = \cot (\dfrac{\pi }{2} - a) we get,
x=cot(π2a)x = \cot (\dfrac{\pi }{2} - a)
Taking cot1{\cot ^{ - 1}} on both sides,
cot1x=cot1(cot(π2a)) cot1x=π2a  {\cot ^{ - 1}}x = {\cot ^{ - 1}}(\cot (\dfrac{\pi }{2} - a)) \\\ {\cot ^{ - 1}}x = \dfrac{\pi }{2} - a \\\
Putting tan1x=a{\tan ^{ - 1}}x = a and cot1x=π2a{\cot ^{ - 1}}x = \dfrac{\pi }{2} - a in the expression tan1x+cot1x{\tan ^{ - 1}}x + {\cot ^{ - 1}}x, we get,
tan1x+cot1x=a+π2a=π2{\tan ^{ - 1}}x + {\cot ^{ - 1}}x = a + \dfrac{\pi }{2} - a = \dfrac{\pi }{2}
Thus, we get LHS = π2\dfrac{\pi }{2} = RHS.
Hence, we proved that tan1x+tan1(1x)=π2{\tan ^{ - 1}}x + {\tan ^{ - 1}}(\dfrac{1}{x}) = \dfrac{\pi }{2} for x>0x > 0.

Note: The above discussed solution may not be the only way to prove the given identity. We can prove an identity by various ways using different trigonometric properties or identities. We may get confused as to which identity to use where, but that can only be solved with more and more practice of such questions. Also, we have to take care that the constraint given in the question (here x>0x > 0) should not be violated anywhere during the solution.