Question
Question: How do you prove \({\cot ^{ - 1}}x = {\tan ^{ - 1}}\left( {\dfrac{1}{x}} \right)\) for \(x > 0\)?...
How do you prove cot−1x=tan−1(x1) for x>0?
Solution
We will first assume that cot−1x=y. Then, we can write it as: x=coty=tany1.
Thus, now we can invert both the sides and take inverse of tangent to get the required answer.
Complete step by step answer:
We are given that we are required to prove cot−1x=tan−1(x1) for x>0.
Since we know that the principal argument for cotangent of an angle is [0,π] and here, we have x>0, therefore, the condition is x∈(0,2π).
Now, let us assume the left hand side of the above equation to be equal to y, we will then obtain the following equation:-
⇒cot−1x=y ………………………(1)
Taking cot on both the sides of above equation, we will then obtain the following equation with us:-
⇒cot(cot−1x)=coty
Simplifying the left hand side of the above equation, we will then obtain the following equation with us:-
⇒x=coty
Now, since we know that tangent of an angle is inverse of cotangent of that angle.
So, we have: coty=tany1.
Putting this in the last mentioned equation, we will then obtain the following equation with us:-
⇒x=tany1
Taking reciprocal of both the sides of the above equation, we will then obtain the following equation with us:-
⇒x1=tany11
Simplifying the right hand side of the above equation, we will then obtain the following equation with us:-
⇒x1=11×tany
Simplifying the right hand side of the above equation further, we will then obtain the following equation with us:-
⇒x1=tany
Taking tan−1 on both the sides of the above equation, we will then obtain the following equation with us:-
⇒tan−1(x1)=tan−1(tany)
Simplifying the right hand side of the above equation, we will then obtain the following equation with us:-
⇒tan−1(x1)=y …………….(2)
Using equation number 1 and 2 together, we will then obtain the following equation as required with us:-
⇒cot−1x=tan−1(x1)
Note:
The students must note that if there would have been the possibility of x being less than or equal to 0, then the situation would have been changed and x∈[2π,π).
Therefore, if it would have has just for any real number x, then we would have obtained the following result:-
\Rightarrow {\cot ^{ - 1}}x = \left\\{ {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}}
{{{\tan }^{ - 1}}\left( {\dfrac{1}{x}} \right),x > 0} \\\
{\pi + {{\tan }^{ - 1}}\left( {\dfrac{1}{x}} \right),x \leqslant 0}
\end{array}} \right.