Solveeit Logo

Question

Question: How do you find two solutions to \(\sin (x) = \dfrac{1}{2}\) ?...

How do you find two solutions to sin(x)=12\sin (x) = \dfrac{1}{2} ?

Explanation

Solution

sin(x) is positive in the first and second quadrant. The range in which the solution can be found is [0,π][0,\pi ]. Using this information and the result sin(x)=sin(πx)\sin (x) = \sin (\pi - x), the solutions for sin(x)=12\sin (x) = \dfrac{1}{2} can be found.

Complete Step by Step Solution:
The given expression in the question is sin(x)=12\sin (x) = \dfrac{1}{2}. We need to find the solutions in the interval [0,2π][0,2\pi ]. This implies that we need to look for angles in this particular interval such that the sine of these angles would be 12\dfrac{1}{2}.
We know that the angle satisfying the expression cannot be in the third or the fourth quadrant because the sine function is negative in these quadrants. So, we can reduce the range of finding the solution from [0,2π][0,2\pi ] to [0,π][0,\pi ].
A known result is sin(30)=12\sin (30^\circ ) = \dfrac{1}{2}. Thus, one of the solutions of x is 3030^\circ .
To find the other angle that would satisfy the expression, we can use the result sin(x)=sin(πx)\sin (x) = \sin (\pi - x)
So, according to the symmetry of the sine graph, we can find the value of the second angle by substituting x as 3030^\circ .
Therefore, sin(30)=sin(18030)=sin(150)\sin (30^\circ ) = \sin (180^\circ - 30^\circ ) = \sin (150^\circ )
As we know that sin(30)=12\sin (30^\circ ) = \dfrac{1}{2} , we can deduce that sin(150)=12\sin (150^\circ ) = \dfrac{1}{2}.

The solutions of sin(x)=12\sin (x) = \dfrac{1}{2} are x=30,150x = 30^\circ ,150^\circ .

Note:
We can prove the result sin(x)=sin(πx)\sin (x) = \sin (\pi - x) in the following manner:
sin(πx)\sin (\pi - x) can be expanded using the sine formula: sin(ab)=sin(a)cos(b)cos(a)sin(b)\sin (a - b) = \sin (a)\cos (b) - \cos (a)\sin (b)
Hence, sin(πx)=sin(π)cos(x)cos(π)sin(x)\sin (\pi - x) = \sin (\pi )\cos (x) - \cos (\pi )\sin (x)
Substituting sin(π)=0\sin (\pi ) = 0 and cos(π)=1\cos (\pi ) = - 1 , we get sin(πx)=(0)cos(x)(1)sin(x)=sin(x)\sin (\pi - x) = (0)\cos (x) - ( - 1)\sin (x) = \sin (x)
sin(πx)=sin(x)\therefore \sin (\pi - x) = \sin (x)