Solveeit Logo

Question

Question: How do you find the exact value of \[{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( -1 \right)\]?...

How do you find the exact value of tan1(1){{\tan }^{-1}}\left( -1 \right)?

Explanation

Solution

From the question given, we have been asked to find the exact value of tan1(1){{\tan }^{-1}}\left( -1 \right). We can find the exact value of tan1(1){{\tan }^{-1}}\left( -1 \right) by using the basic functions of trigonometry and some basic values of trigonometry. By using the properties of the trigonometry we can find the exact value for the given inverse trigonometric function.

Complete step by step answer:
Now considering from the question we need to find the exact value of the given expression.
From the basic values of trigonometry, we can write that, sin(π4)=22\Rightarrow \sin \left( \dfrac{\pi }{4} \right)=\dfrac{\sqrt{2}}{2}
Now, we have to find the negative angle value for the above function.
By finding the negative angle value for the above function, we get sin(π4)=22\Rightarrow \sin \left( -\dfrac{\pi }{4} \right)=-\dfrac{\sqrt{2}}{2}
Also, cos(π4)=22\Rightarrow \cos \left( \dfrac{\pi }{4} \right)=\dfrac{\sqrt{2}}{2}
Now, we have to find the negative angle value for the above function.
By finding the negative angle value for the above function, we get cos(π4)=22\Rightarrow \cos \left( -\dfrac{\pi }{4} \right)=\dfrac{\sqrt{2}}{2}
We know that tangent function is the division of sine function with cosine function.
Therefore, tan(π4)=sin(π4)cos(π4)=2222=1\Rightarrow \tan \left( -\dfrac{\pi }{4} \right)=\dfrac{\sin \left( -\dfrac{\pi }{4} \right)}{\cos \left( -\dfrac{\pi }{4} \right)}=\dfrac{-\dfrac{\sqrt{2}}{2}}{\dfrac{\sqrt{2}}{2}}=-1
By using this, we can find the exact value for the given inverse trigonometric function.
Note that tangent of θ\theta is periodic with period π\pi . So, we find
tan(kππ4)=1\tan \left( k\pi -\dfrac{\pi }{4} \right)=-1 for any integer kk.
However, the principal value denoted tan1{{\tan }^{-1}} is chosen to lie in the domain (π2,π2)\left( -\dfrac{\pi }{2},\dfrac{\pi }{2} \right), which includes π4-\dfrac{\pi }{4}. So that is the value of tan1(1){{\tan }^{-1}}\left( -1 \right).
Therefore, tan1(1)=π4{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( -1 \right)=-\dfrac{\pi }{4}
Hence, we got the exact value for the given inverse trigonometric function.

Note: We should be well aware of the trigonometric functions and their properties. Also, we should be well known about the basic values of basic angles of the trigonometry. Also, we should be very careful while finding the exact value for the given question. Simply we can solve this question using tan(π4)=1\tan \left( -\dfrac{\pi }{4} \right)=-1 that is generally tan(kππ4)=1\tan \left( k\pi -\dfrac{\pi }{4} \right)=-1 for any integer kk . Therefore we can conclude that the solution of tan1(1){{\tan }^{-1}}\left( -1 \right) is π4\dfrac{-\pi }{4} in its domain which is (π2,π2)\left( -\dfrac{\pi }{2},\dfrac{\pi }{2} \right) .