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Question: How do you evaluate \(\left( _{7}^{8} \right)\) using Pascal's triangle?...

How do you evaluate (78)\left( _{7}^{8} \right) using Pascal's triangle?

Explanation

Solution

To evaluate the above form (78)\left( _{7}^{8} \right) we should know the basics about Pascal's triangle. In mathematics, it is a triangular array of the binomial coefficients that arises in the algebra probability theory and many more. Whenever I have sum of the sort (kn)\left( _{k}^{n} \right) where the number nn corresponds to the row number of Pascal's triangle and kk corresponds to the column number of that row, where the first column has the value ofk=0k=0. Here (kn)\left( _{k}^{n} \right)is typically read as n''n choosekk''. There is a formula to find (kn)\left( _{k}^{n} \right)which is
(kn)=n!k!(n1)!\Rightarrow \left( _{k}^{n} \right)=\dfrac{n!}{k!\left( n-1 \right)!} Where! is the factorial function.

Complete step by step solution:
The given equation (78)\left( _{7}^{8} \right) .now compare this with the (kn)=n!k!(n1)!\left( _{k}^{n} \right)=\dfrac{n!}{k!\left( n-1 \right)!} we get n=8n=8 and k=7k=7.
Now putting the values for nnand kkin this situation gives:
(k=7n=8)=((n=8)!(k=7)!(87)!) (78)=8!7!(87)! (78)=87!7!1! (78)=8 \begin{aligned} & \Rightarrow \left( _{k=7}^{n=8} \right)=\left( \dfrac{\left( n=8 \right)!}{\left( k=7 \right)!\left( 8-7 \right)!} \right) \\\ & \Rightarrow \left( _{7}^{8} \right)=\dfrac{8!}{7!\left( 8-7 \right)!} \\\ & \Rightarrow \left( _{7}^{8} \right)=\dfrac{8\cdot 7!}{7!\cdot 1!} \\\ & \Rightarrow \left( _{7}^{8} \right)=8 \\\ \end{aligned}
Hence the solution of (78)\left( _{7}^{8} \right) is 88.
We can also Pascal's triangle which is constructed as; Pascal's triangle is a never ending equilateral triangle of numbers that follows a rule of adding the two numbers above to get the number below. Two of the sides are “all 1`s” and because the triangle is infinite, there is no “bottom side”.

So here in the bottom row we can find our required term as 8.

Note: To solve these types of questions there is also another method. If we have (n1n)\left( _{n-1}^{n} \right) then by using the formula, the solution becomes(n1n)=n\left( _{n-1}^{n} \right)=n. Remember the first row and first column are given by n=0n=0 and k=0k=0 respectively.