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Question: : From a well shuffled pack of \[52\] cards, one card is drawn at random. Find the probability of ge...

: From a well shuffled pack of 5252 cards, one card is drawn at random. Find the probability of getting a diamond.

Explanation

Solution

Hint : There are total 5252 cards in a deck with 44 different suits: ace, diamonds, hearts and clubs. All the suits have equal number of cards and each suit has 1313 cards. Hence to arrive at the probability, we will have to divide 1313 by 5252 with the formula P(E)=NumberoffavourableoutcomesTotalnumberofoutcomesP(E) = \dfrac{{Number\,of\,favourable\,outcomes}}{{Total\,number\,of\,outcomes}} .

Complete step-by-step answer :

We are given the figure as follows, represented as a well shuffled pack of 5252 cards, one card is drawn at random. Find the probability of getting a diamond.
We will use combination techniques to find out the solution. A combination is a mathematical technique for calculating the number of possible arrangements in a collection of items where the order of the items is irrelevant. It is denoted as nCrn{C_r} where nn is the total number of objects and rr is the number of selections.
The formula to find combination is given as follows:
nCr=n!r!(nr)!n{C_r} = \dfrac{{n!}}{{r!(n - r)!}}
Moreover, probability of an event can be obtained as ratio of occurrence of an event to the total sample size. The formula of finding probability of a favourable event is P(E)=NumberoffavourableoutcomesTotalnumberofoutcomesP(E) = \dfrac{{Number\,of\,favourable\,outcomes}}{{Total\,number\,of\,outcomes}}
Now we can proceed to solve the sum as follows:
Total cards in pack are 5252 . Hence the total combination of selecting one card will be-
nCr=52!1!(521)!n{C_r} = \dfrac{{52!}}{{1!(52 - 1)!}}
=52!1!(51)!= \dfrac{{52!}}{{1!(51)!}}
=52×51!1!(51)!= \dfrac{{52 \times 51!}}{{1!(51)!}}
=51C1= 51{C_1}
Total number of diamonds in a pack are 1313 starting from A to 1010 , King, Queen and Jack. Hence the total combination of selecting one card of diamond will be-
nCr=13!1!(131)!n{C_r} = \dfrac{{13!}}{{1!(13 - 1)!}}
=13!1!(12)!= \dfrac{{13!}}{{1!(12)!}}
=13×12!1!(12)!= \dfrac{{13 \times 12!}}{{1!(12)!}}
=13C1= 13{C_1}
Now let the probability of getting a diamond be P(D)P(D) :
P(D)=NumberofgettingdiamondTotalnumberofcardsP(D) = \dfrac{{Number\,of\,getting\,diamond}}{{Total\,number\,of\,cards}}
=13C152C1= \dfrac{{13{C_1}}}{{52{C_1}}}
=1352= \dfrac{{13}}{{52}}
=14= \dfrac{1}{4}
In terms of percentage, it will be 14×100=25%\dfrac{1}{4} \times 100 = 25\%
So, the correct answer is “ =14 = \dfrac{1}{4} ”.

Note : We can solve the sum directly without applying the combination formula since there is selection of only one card.
We know that there are 1313 diamond cards so favourable outcomes will be 1313 and sample size will be 5252 as the total number of cards. We use the probability formula to obtain the required solution.