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Question

Question: \(f(\pi) = 1f\left( \frac{\pi}{2} \right) = - 1\)=...

f(π)=1f(π2)=1f(\pi) = 1f\left( \frac{\pi}{2} \right) = - 1=

A

1

B

2

C

0

D

Does not exist

Answer

0

Explanation

Solution

= sin\frac { \sin \infty } { \infty } = = 0