Question
Question: For \(x \in R\),\(f(x) = \) \(\left| {\log 2 - \sin x} \right|\) and \(g(x) = f(f(x))\), then: A. ...
For x∈R,f(x)= ∣log2−sinx∣ and g(x)=f(f(x)), then:
A. g is not differentiable at x=0
B. g′(0)=cos(log2)
C. g′(0)=−cos(log2)
D. g is differentiable at x=0and g′(0)=−sin(log2)
Solution
We have the function f(x),g(x).According to the problem given, it is very clear that we need to find the differentiability of g(x) at x=0 and then find the value of g′(0). So firstly we will check whether g(x) is differentiable at x=0 and if it is, then we will find g′(0)
Complete step-by-step answer:
x∈R,f(x)= ∣log2−sinx∣ −−−−−(1)
g(x)=f(f(x)) −−−−−(2)
It is very clear from the options that we need to find the differentiability of g(x) at x=0
We know that if g(x) is continuous at x=0, when
g(0)=x→0limg(x)
So firstly,
g(0)=f(f(0))
Using (1),
g(0)=∣log2−sin0∣
As sin0=0, so
g(0)=f∣log2∣
g(0)=∣log2−sin(log2)∣ −−−−−(3)
Now taking
x→0limg(x)=x→0limf(f(x))
=x→0lim f(∣log2−sinx∣)
Using (1),
=x→0lim ∣log2−sin(log2)∣
Therefore:
x→0limg(x) =∣log2−sin(log2)∣ −−−−−(4)
Now from (3) and (4)
g(0)=x→0limg(x)
So g(x) is continuous at x=0, hence differentiable also.
Now we will find g′(0)
Differentiating (2) and using the chain rule,
g′(0) =f′(f(x)).f′(x)
Using x=0
=f′(f(0)).f′(0)
Now differentiating (1) with respect to x
f′(x)=−cosx−−−−−(6)
Put x=0 in (1) and (6)
f(0)=∣log2∣ and f′(0)=−cos0=−1
Now use (5) by putting these values in it,
g′(0) =f′(∣log2∣).(−1)−−−−−(7)
Now putting x=∣log2∣in (6)
f′(∣log2∣)=−cos(∣log2∣)
Now putting this in (7)
g′(0) =−cos(∣log2∣).(−1)=cos(∣log2∣)
So, the correct answer is “Option B”.
Note: Here in the last step we have written that ∣log2∣=log2 because log2 is the positive number.in this question, we have also taken the derivative of f which means that it is differentiable. So in this way we can easily solve the problem.