Question
Question: For what value of a does the following system of equations x + ay = 0, y + az = 0, z + ax = 0, ha...
For what value of a does the following system of equations
x + ay = 0, y + az = 0, z + ax = 0, has infinitely many solutions
[a] a = 1
[b] a = 0
[c] a = -1
[d] None of these
Solution
Hint: Write the system of equations in matrix form AX=B. Use the fact that a homogeneous system of equations has infinitely many solutions if det(A) = 0. Hence find det(A) in terms of a and put det(A) = 0 to get the value of a.
Complete step-by-step answer:
The given system of equations can be written as 1 0 a a100a1x y z =0 0 0 .
So, we have A=1 0 a a100a1,B=0 0 0 and X=x y z
Finding det(A):
We have
det(A)=1(1−0)−a(0−a2)=1+a3
For infinitely many solutions we have det(A) = 0
⇒1+a3=0
Subtracting 1 from both sides, we get
a3=−1⇒a=−1
Hence when a = - 1 the given system of equations has infinitely many solutions.
Note: Alternatively we can convert the given system of equations to an equation in variable and find the value of “a” so that the formed equation goes identically to 0.
Step I: From the first equation express x in terms of y
We have
x+ay=0⇒x=−ay (A)
Step II: From the second equation express y in terms of z
We have
y+az = 0
y = -az (B)
Hence we have x=−a(−az)=a2z
Step III: Substitute the value of x and y in the third equation
We have
a(a2z)+z=0⇒z(a3+1)=0
To make the equation go identically to 0, we must have 1+a3=0
Hence a = -1.
Hence the given system of equations has infinitely many solutions when a = -1.