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Question: For the function \(f(x) = {e^{cos x}}\), Rolle’s theorem is \[1)\]applicable when \[\dfrac{\pi }{2...

For the function f(x)=ecosxf(x) = {e^{cos x}}, Rolle’s theorem is
1)1)applicable when π2x3π2\dfrac{\pi }{2} \leqslant x \leqslant \dfrac{{3\pi }}{2}
2)2)applicable when 0xπ20 \leqslant x \leqslant \dfrac{\pi }{2}
3)3)applicable when 0xπ0 \leqslant x \leqslant \pi
4)4)applicable when π4  xπ2\dfrac{\pi }{4} \leqslant \;x \leqslant \dfrac{\pi }{2}

Explanation

Solution

We have to find the interval for which the function f(x)=ecosxf(x) = {e^{cos x}} follows Rolle’s law . We solve this question using the concept of Rolle’s theorem . The conditions which a function should satisfy to follow Rolle’s Theorem . We should also know about the concept of continuity and differentiability of a function.

Complete step-by-step solution:
Given : f(x)=ecosxf(x) = {e^{cos x}}
We know that the conditions of a Rolle’s theorem:
If f(x)f\left( x \right) is a real valued function defined on closed interval [a,b]\left[ {a,b} \right] such that
\left( 1 \right)$$$$f\left( x \right) is continuous in [a,b]\left[ {a,b} \right]
\left( 2 \right)$$$$f\left( x \right) is differentiable in (a,b)(a,b)
\left( 3 \right)$$$$f\left( a \right) = f\left( b \right)
Then there must must exist one real number such that c(a,b)c \in \left( {a,b} \right) such that f(c)=0.f'\left( c \right) = 0.
So , if a function follows these conditions then the function follows Rolle’s theorem .
Now ,
We know that every exponential function is continuous and differentiable for all the values of xx.
So ,
The given function follows the first two conditions of Rolle’s theorem.
Now we have to check the third condition i.e .f(a).f\left( a \right) should be equal to f(b)f\left( b \right).
So ,
e(cosa)=e(cosb){e^{(cosa)}} = {e^{(cosb)}} Taking log both sides , we get
cosa=cosbcosa = cosb——-(1)
So , the interval which follows Rolle’s Theorem should satisfy the condition in equation (1)
Now let us take all the limits as given in the question .
Let x[π2,3π2]x \in [\dfrac{\pi }{2},\dfrac{{3\pi }}{2}]
So, on comparing the interval values , we get a=π2a = \dfrac{\pi }{2} and b=3π2b = \dfrac{{3\pi }}{2}
Now , using the values of cos function
cos(π2)=0cos\left( {\dfrac{\pi }{2}} \right) = 0
cos(3π2)=0cos\left( {\dfrac{{3\pi }}{2}} \right) = 0
Hence ,
cos(π2)=cos\left( {\dfrac{\pi }{2}} \right) = cos(3π2)cos\left( {\dfrac{{3\pi }}{2}} \right)
Thus , this satisfies the third condition for Rolle’s theorem .
Hence the interval for which Rolle’s theorem is applicable is [π2 ,3π2][\dfrac{\pi }{2}{\text{ ,}}\dfrac{{3\pi }}{2}] .
Thus , the correct option is (1)\left( 1 \right).

Note: A function is continuous at x=cx = c if the function is defined at x=cx = c and if the value of the function at x=cx = c equals the limit of the function at x=cx = c . If f is not continuous at cc , we say f is discontinuous at cc and cc is called a point of discontinuity of f .
In simple terms a function is said to be continuous at a point x=cx = c if the
limxcf(x)= limxc+f(x)=f(c)\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to {c^ - }} f\left( x \right) = {\text{ }}\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to {c^ + }} f\left( x \right) = f\left( c \right)
A function f(x) is said to be differentiable at x=cx = c if
limh0 [f(ah)f(a)](h)=limh0[f(a+h)f(a)]h\mathop {\lim }\limits_{h \to 0} {\text{ }}\dfrac{{\left[ {f\left( {a - h} \right) - f\left( a \right)} \right]}}{{\left( { - h} \right)}} = \mathop {\lim }\limits_{h \to 0} \dfrac{{\left[ {f\left( {a + h} \right) - f\left( a \right)} \right]}}{h}.