Question
Question: Find n and p for a binomial distribution if mean = 6 and standard deviation = 2. Also find probabili...
Find n and p for a binomial distribution if mean = 6 and standard deviation = 2. Also find probability at (x=1)?
Solution
We know that from the binomial distribution that “p” is the probability of success and “q” is the probability of failure (which is 1 – p) and “n” is the number of trials in a binomial experiment. We have given mean as 6 and from the binomial distribution the mean is equal to the multiplication of n and p so substitute these values and mark this as eq. (1) then we have given standard deviation as 2 and variance is the square of standard deviation and from the binomial distribution, variance is equal to the multiplication of n, p and q. Mark this as equation (2). Solve the eq. (1) and eq. (2) and find the value of n and p. Then we have given (x=1) which is the number of success in the binomial experiment and the probability of it is equal to nC1(p)1(q)n−1. Now, substitute the values of n, p and q and get the value of probability.
Complete step by step answer:
We have given a binomial distribution with mean as 6 and standard deviation as 2. We are asked to find the value of n and p.
In binomial distribution, n are the number of trials, “p” is the probability of success and “q” is the probability of failure.
We know that total probability is equal to 1 so adding p and q then equating to 1 we get,
p+q=1⇒q=1−p
From the binomial distribution,
Mean=np
Substituting mean as 6 in the above equation we get,
6=np………… Eq. (1)
In the above problem, standard deviation is given as 2 so variance is the square of standard deviation.
Variance=4
From the binomial distribution, variance is equal to multiplication of n, p and q.
Variance=npq
Substituting variance as 4 and q as 1 – p we get,
4=np(1−p)……… Eq. (2)
Dividing eq. (2) by eq. (1) we get,
64=npnp(1−p)
In the above equation, “np” will be cancelled out and we get,
64=1−p⇒32=1−p
Rearranging the above equation we get,
p=1−32⇒p=33−2=31
Substituting p as 31 in eq. (1) we get,
6=n(31)⇒n=18
Hence, we have got the value of n as 18 and p as 31.
Now, substituting p as 31 in q=1−p we get,
q=1−(31)⇒q=33−1=32
We are also asked to find the probability when the number of successes is 1(x=1). We know that the probability when number of success is 1 is as follows:
nC1(p)1(q)n−1
Substituting the values of n, p and q that we have calculated above in the above equation we get,
18C1(31)1(32)18−1=18C1(31)1(32)17
We know that nC1=n so using this relation in the above equation we get,