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Question: calculate magnetic field, as $Bx \hat{i} + By \hat{j} + Bz \hat{k}$...

calculate magnetic field, as Bxi^+Byj^+Bzk^Bx \hat{i} + By \hat{j} + Bz \hat{k}

Answer

B=0i^1.06×105j^+0k^(T)\vec{B}=0\,\hat{i}-1.06\times10^{-5}\,\hat{j}+0\,\hat{k}\quad\text{(T)}

Explanation

Solution

We wish to find the magnetic field at point

P(0,0,0.05m)P(0,0,0.05\,\mathrm{m})

in a 3D coordinate system (with xx to the right, yy upward, and zz “downward”). A current I=3AI=3\,A flows along the positive xx–axis. In the diagram a ray labelled “rr” from the origin makes an angle 5050^\circ with the xx–axis. (In the standard formula the two ends of the wire subtend angles θ1\theta_1 and θ2\theta_2 at PP; here the lower (finite) end at the origin gives θ1=90\theta_1=90^\circ since the line joining PP to the origin is perpendicular to the xx–axis, and the other (upper) end gives θ2=50\theta_2=50^\circ.)

For a finite straight conductor the magnetic field at a point located a perpendicular distance dd from the wire is

B=μ0I4πd(sinθ1+sinθ2)B=\frac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi\,d}\Bigl(\sin\theta_1+\sin\theta_2\Bigr)

with direction given by the right–hand rule (circling the wire).

Here,

  • dd is the perpendicular distance from the xx–axis to PP. Since P(0,0,0.05)P(0,0,0.05) is 0.05 m from the xx–axis, we have d=0.05md=0.05\,\mathrm{m}.
  • θ1=90\theta_1=90^\circ so sinθ1=1\sin\theta_1=1.
  • θ2=50\theta_2=50^\circ so sinθ20.7660\sin\theta_2\approx0.7660.

Thus the magnitude is

B=μ0I4π(0.05)(1+0.7660)=(4π×107)(3)4π(0.05)(1.7660).B=\frac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi\,(0.05)}\Bigl(1+0.7660\Bigr) =\frac{(4\pi\times10^{-7})(3)}{4\pi\,(0.05)}\,(1.7660).

Cancel the 4π4\pi’s:

B=3×1070.05(1.7660).B=\frac{3\times10^{-7}}{0.05}\,(1.7660).

Now,

3×1070.05=6×106.\frac{3\times10^{-7}}{0.05}=6\times10^{-6}\,.

Thus,

B=6×106×1.76601.06×105T.B=6\times10^{-6}\times1.7660\approx1.06\times10^{-5}\,\text{T}.

Direction:

For a current along +i^+\hat{i} the magnetic field “circulates” around the wire. At point PP (which lies along the +k^+\hat{k} direction relative to the wire) the right–hand rule tells us that the field is in the j^-\hat{j} direction.

Therefore, the magnetic field at PP is:

B=0i^1.06×105j^+0k^(T).\boxed{\vec{B}=0\,\hat{i}-1.06\times10^{-5}\,\hat{j}+0\,\hat{k}\quad\text{(T)}.}

Minimal Explanation of the Core Steps

  1. Identify that PP is at a perpendicular distance d=0.05md=0.05\,\text{m} from the xx–axis.
  2. Recognize that the conductor is finite – with one end at the origin (θ1=90\theta_1=90^\circ) and the other “end at infinity” or making a 5050^\circ with the xx–axis (θ2=50\theta_2=50^\circ).
  3. Use
B=μ0I4πd(sinθ1+sinθ2)B=\frac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi\,d}\Bigl(\sin\theta_1+\sin\theta_2\Bigr)

with μ0=4π×107T\cdotpm/A\mu_0=4\pi\times10^{-7}\,\text{T·m/A}. 4. Compute the magnitude and assign the direction (using the right–hand rule, the field at PP is along j^-\hat{j}).


Final Answer

B=0i^1.06×105j^+0k^(T).\boxed{\vec{B}=0\,\hat{i}-1.06\times10^{-5}\,\hat{j}+0\,\hat{k}\quad\text{(T)}.}