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Question: Consider one dimensional motion of a particle of mass\(m\). It has potential energy \[U = a + b{x^2}...

Consider one dimensional motion of a particle of massmm. It has potential energy U=a+bx2U = a + b{x^2}, where aa and bb are positive constants. At origin (x=0)\left( {x = 0} \right) it has initial velocity v0{v_0}. It performs simple harmonic oscillations. The frequency of the simple harmonic motion depends on:
A. bb and mm alone
B. bb, aa and mm alone
C. bb alone
D. bb and aa alone

Explanation

Solution

Try to get the equation of acceleration using the second law of Newton mechanics to relate it to the acceleration of particles performing simple harmonic oscillation. For that, first, find the force by differentiating potential energy.

Formula used:
F=dUdxF = - \dfrac{{dU}}{{dx}}; Representing force(F) is the (negative)derivative of Potential energy(UU).
a(t)=ω2x(t)a\left( t \right) = - {\omega ^2}x\left( t \right), where a(t)a(t) is acceleration with respect to time, ω\omega is angular velocity and x(t)x(t) is the displacement function.

Complete answer:
Here, a particle is performing a simple harmonic motion in one-dimensional motion which has potential energy at point xx from the mean position is UU.
We have,
Potential energy, U=a+bx2U = a + b{x^2}
Where, aa and bb are constants
Now Force, F=dUdxF = - \dfrac{{dU}}{{dx}}
By putting the value of UUin the above equation, we get
F=d(a+bx2)dx F=[ddx(a)+ddx(bx2)]  F = - \dfrac{{d \cdot \left( {a + b{x^2}} \right)}}{{dx}} \\\ F = - \left[ {\dfrac{d}{{dx}}\left( a \right) + \dfrac{d}{{dx}}\left( {b{x^2}} \right)} \right] \\\
Since the derivative of constant is zero, so
ddx(a)=0\dfrac{d}{{dx}}\left( a \right) = 0
By substituting this, we have
F=0bddx(x2)\Rightarrow F = 0 - b \cdot \dfrac{d}{{dx}}\left( {{x^2}} \right)
F=0b2x\Rightarrow F = 0 - b \cdot 2x (derivative of xn{x^n} is nx(n1)n{x^{\left( {n - 1} \right)}})
F=2bx(1)\Rightarrow F = - 2bx \cdot \cdot \cdot \cdot \cdot \cdot \left( 1 \right)
We know that, F=maF = ma from second law of newton where,
mm=mass of particle
aa=acceleration of particle
So,
a=Fm\Rightarrow a = \dfrac{F}{m}
Put the value of FFthat we get in equation (1)\left( 1 \right)
a=Fm=2bmx(2)\Rightarrow a = \dfrac{F}{m} = - \dfrac{{2b}}{m}x \cdot \cdot \cdot \cdot \cdot \cdot \left( 2 \right)
The acceleration of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is given by,
a(t)=ω2x(t)(3)a\left( t \right) = - {\omega ^2}x\left( t \right) \cdot \cdot \cdot \cdot \cdot \cdot \left( 3 \right)
Here, ω\omega is the angular velocity of a particle.
By comparing (2)\left( 2 \right)and(3)\left( 3 \right), we get
ω2=2bm ω=2bm  \Rightarrow {\omega ^2} = \dfrac{{2b}}{m} \\\ \Rightarrow \omega = \sqrt {\dfrac{{2b}}{m}} \\\

**\therefore The frequency of simple harmonic motion depends on bband mm.
So the correct option is A. **

Note:
One interesting characteristic of the SHM of an object attached to a spring is the angular frequency, and therefore the period and frequency of the motion, depending on only the mass and the force constant, and not on other factors such as the amplitude of the motion.