Question

$\begin{array}{l}(p \land r )\Leftrightarrow ( p \land (\sim q))\end{array}$is equivalent to (~ p) when r is

• A. p
• B. ∼p
• C. q
• D. ∼q

Answer 1

Answer: (C)

q

Answer 2

The truth table

Clearly $p∧q⇔p∧∼q≡∼p$
$∴ r = q$