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Question: A thin conducting horizontal disc of mass \(m\) having total charge \(q\) distributed uniformly over...

A thin conducting horizontal disc of mass mm having total charge qq distributed uniformly over its surface can rotate freely about its own axis. Initially when the disc BB stationary a magnetic field is directed perpendicular to the plane is switched on at t=0t = 0. Find the angular velocity ω\omega acquired by disc as a function of time, if B=ktB = kt, where tt is time.

Explanation

Solution

Hint
We need to find the electric field that is induced due to the time varying magnetic field. Then we can calculate the force due to that electric field. We can then find the torque due to that force and equate that to the product of the moment of inertia and linear acceleration. The angular acceleration can be calculated from the linear acceleration.
Formula Used: In this solution we will be using the following formula,
Edl=ddtBdA\oint {E \cdot dl} = - \dfrac{d}{{dt}}\int {B \cdot dA}
Where EE is the electric field and BB is the magnetic field.
F=qEF = qE where FF is the force on charge qq due to the electric field.
τ=rdF\tau = \int {rdF} where τ\tau is the torque.
and τ=Iα\tau = I\alpha where II is the moment of inertia of the disc and α\alpha is the angular acceleration.

Complete step by step answer
Let us consider a small ring inside the disc of radius rr.We need to first find the electric field that is induced in the ring due to the rotating charged disc in the time varying magnetic field. It is given by the formula,
Edl=ddtBdA\oint {E \cdot dl} = - \dfrac{d}{{dt}}\int {B \cdot dA}
Now since the electric field and the magnetic field are uniform on the surface of the disc, they come out of the integration. And the closed surface integration over the disc will give 2πr2\pi r where rrthe radius of a smaller circle inside the disc is and the integration over the area will give, πr2\pi {r^2}
So substituting the values we get,
E×2πr=πr2ddt(B)E \times 2\pi r = - \pi {r^2}\dfrac{d}{{dt}}\left( B \right)
We can substitute the value of the magnetic field as, B=ktB = kt and cancel the πr\pi r on both sides of the equation to get,
E×2=rddt(kt)E \times 2 = - r\dfrac{d}{{dt}}\left( {kt} \right)
On doing the differentiation we get the value of the electric field as,
E=rk2E = - \dfrac{{rk}}{2}
Let the charge on the small ring be dqdq. So the force experienced by the charged ring in the electric field is given by dF=(dq)EdF = \left( {dq} \right)E
Now the charge on the ring can be given by,
dq=qπR2×2πrdrdq = \dfrac{q}{{\pi {R^2}}} \times 2\pi rdr
So substituting the value of charge and electric field we get force as,
dF=qπR2×2πrdr×rk2dF = \dfrac{q}{{\pi {R^2}}} \times 2\pi rdr \times \dfrac{{rk}}{2}
We neglected the negative sign as we only considered the magnitude.
Therefore, the total torque due to the whole disc is,
τ=rdF\tau = \int {rdF}
Substituting the values,
τ=(rqπR2×2πrdr×rk2)\tau = \int {\left( {r\dfrac{q}{{\pi {R^2}}} \times 2\pi rdr \times \dfrac{{rk}}{2}} \right)}
We can set the limit from 0 to RR
Taking the constants out of integration we get,
τ=qπR2×2π×k20Rr3dr\tau = \dfrac{q}{{\pi {R^2}}} \times 2\pi \times \dfrac{k}{2}\int_0^R {{r^3}dr}
Now cancelling all the common terms among the constants, and doing the integration we get,
τ=qR2×k×r440R\tau = \dfrac{q}{{{R^2}}} \times k \times \left. {\dfrac{{{r^4}}}{4}} \right|_0^R
Substituting the limits,
τ=qR2×k×R44\tau = \dfrac{q}{{{R^2}}} \times k \times \dfrac{{{R^4}}}{4}
On cancelling R2{R^2} from numerator and denominator we get,
τ=kqR24\tau = \dfrac{{kq{R^2}}}{4}
This torque is also given by the product of the moment of inertia and angular acceleration. That is,
τ=Iα\tau = I\alpha
From here we can find linear acceleration as,
α=τI\alpha = \dfrac{\tau }{I}
The moment of inertia of the disc is given by, I=mR22I = \dfrac{{m{R^2}}}{2}
Hence we get angular acceleration as,
α=kqR24mR22\alpha = \dfrac{{\dfrac{{kq{R^2}}}{4}}}{{\dfrac{{m{R^2}}}{2}}}
On simplifying we get
α=kqR24×2mR2\alpha = \dfrac{{kq{R^2}}}{4} \times \dfrac{2}{{m{R^2}}}
Cancelling the like terms,
α=kq2m\alpha = \dfrac{{kq}}{{2m}}
The angular speed will be given by just multiplying the angular acceleration with time as,
ω=kq2m×t\omega = \dfrac{{kq}}{{2m}} \times t
So the angular acceleration is ω=kqt2m\omega = \dfrac{{kqt}}{{2m}}.

Note
The moment of inertia of any body is its tendency to resist angular acceleration. It is given by the sum of the products of the masses and the square of the distance of the particles from the axis of rotation. For a circular disc, the moment of inertia about the center of mass can be calculated as, I=mR22I = \dfrac{{m{R^2}}}{2}.