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Question: A string in a musical instrument is \(50cm\) long and its fundamental frequency is \(800Hz\). If a f...

A string in a musical instrument is 50cm50cm long and its fundamental frequency is 800Hz800Hz. If a frequency of 1000Hz1000Hz is to be produced, then the required length of string is.
A. 37.5cm37.5cm
B. 40cm40cm
C. 50cm50cm
D. 62.5cm62.5cm

Explanation

Solution

We know the frequency produced by a vibrating string is inversely proportional to the length of the string. f1Lf \propto \dfrac{1}{L}
By using this relation we can find the length of the string for any frequency.

Complete step-by-step answer:
First we find the relation between length of the string and wavelength of the wave produced.
Let us assume the length of the string is LL which tight between two point S1{S_1}, S2{S_2} as shown in figure then the fundamental tone produced by the string have wavelength λ\lambda and frequency ff velocity of wave in string is vv. Then

We can clearly see from figure the length of the string equal to the λ2\dfrac{\lambda }{2}
L=λ2\Rightarrow L = \dfrac{\lambda }{2}
Wavelength of fundamental wave produced
λ=2L\Rightarrow \lambda = 2L ........... (1)
We know the relation between velocity, wavelength and frequency of wave is
v=f×λ\Rightarrow v = f \times \lambda
So the frequency of wave
f=vλ\Rightarrow f = \dfrac{v}{\lambda }
Put value of λ\lambda from eq (1)
f=v2L\Rightarrow f = \dfrac{v}{{2L}}
So in his step we get the relation between frequency and length of the string. Velocity of the wave is constant for a string. So we can write.
f1L\therefore f\propto \dfrac{1}{L} ................ (2)
Step 2
From equation (2) we can write.
f11L1{f_1}\propto \dfrac{1}{{{L_1}}} ....... (3)
f21L2{f_2}\propto \dfrac{1}{{{L_2}}} ...... (4)
Divide (3) by (4)
f1f2=L2L1\Rightarrow \dfrac{{{f_1}}}{{{f_2}}} = \dfrac{{{L_2}}}{{{L_1}}}
L2=f1f2(L1)\Rightarrow {L_2} = \dfrac{{{f_1}}}{{{f_2}}}\left( {{L_1}} \right)
Now we take value which given in question
f1=800Hz{f_1} = 800Hz L1=50cm{L_1} = 50cm
f2=1000Hz{f_2} = 1000Hz
From these values we can calculate the length of string (L2)\left( {{L_2}} \right)for 1000Hz.
L2=f1f2(L1)\Rightarrow {L_2} = \dfrac{{{f_1}}}{{{f_2}}}\left( {{L_1}} \right)
L2=8001000(50cm)\Rightarrow {L_2} = \dfrac{{800}}{{1000}}\left( {50cm} \right)
Further solving it.
L2=40cm\Rightarrow {L_2} = 40cm
So now we get the length of the string which can produce 1000Hz1000Hz frequency.
L2=40cm\therefore {L_2} = 40cm

Hence in this question option B is correct.

Note:
We use in above question the velocity of wave in string is constant how it is constant the velocity wave in string is given by v=Tmv = \sqrt {\dfrac{T}{m}}
Where TT \Rightarrow tension in the string
mm \Rightarrow Mass per unit length of string.
We did not change the string in the above question so we take the velocity of the wave as constant.