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Question: A particle of positive charge q and mass m enters with velocity \[v\widehat{j}\] at the origin in a ...

A particle of positive charge q and mass m enters with velocity vj^v\widehat{j} at the origin in a magnetic field B(k)B(-\overset\frown{k}) which is present in the whole space. The charge makes a perfectly inelastic collision with an identical particle (having same charge) at rest but free to move at its maximum positive y-coordinate. After collision, the combined charge will move on trajectory (where r=mvqBr=\dfrac{mv}{qB}) –

& \text{A) }y=\dfrac{mv}{qB}x \\\ & \text{B) (}x+r{{)}^{2}}+{{(y-\dfrac{r}{2})}^{2}}=\dfrac{{{r}^{2}}}{4} \\\ & \text{C) (}x+r{{)}^{2}}+{{(y-\dfrac{r}{2})}^{2}}=\dfrac{{{r}^{2}}}{8} \\\ & \text{D) (}x-r{{)}^{2}}+{{(y+\dfrac{r}{2})}^{2}}=\dfrac{{{r}^{2}}}{4} \\\ \end{aligned}$$
Explanation

Solution

We need to understand the situation when a body inelastically collides with another body, here the charge in particular and the effect of the charges being in a magnetic field with a velocity imparted due to momentum to solve this problem.

Complete Solution:
We know that the inelastic collisions are a result of the sticking of the colliding particles without causing any complete transfer of the kinetic energy into the second body. The momentum after the collision is as a result of the cumulative mass of the two charges, which can be given as –

& \text{Momemtum before collision = Momentum after collision} \\\ & \Rightarrow mv+0=(m+m){{v}_{f}} \\\ & \therefore {{v}_{f}}=\dfrac{v}{2} \\\ \end{aligned}$$ Now, we are told that the charge was initially moving with a velocity ‘v’ along the y-direction in a perpendicular magnetic field. We know that the Lorentz force acting on the particle will result in a circular path with a radius that can be given as – $${{r}_{before}}=\dfrac{mv}{qB}$$ The two charges after sticking together can be given as – $$\begin{aligned} & {{r}_{after}}=\dfrac{2m{{v}_{f}}}{2qB} \\\ & \Rightarrow {{r}_{after}}=\dfrac{2m\dfrac{v}{2}}{2qB} \\\ & \therefore {{r}_{after}}=\dfrac{{{r}_{before}}}{2} \\\ \end{aligned}$$ ![](https://www.vedantu.com/question-sets/fb658666-0b56-44db-aec0-a9fe3cce24c61737764759256481869.png) So, using the equation of a circle, we can find the final trajectory of the two charges as – $$\begin{aligned} & {{x}^{2}}+{{y}^{2}}={{r}^{2}} \\\ & \Rightarrow {{(x+r)}^{2}}+{{(y-\dfrac{r}{2})}^{2}}={{(\dfrac{r}{2})}^{2}} \\\ & \therefore {{(x+r)}^{2}}+{{(y-\dfrac{r}{2})}^{2}}=\dfrac{{{r}^{2}}}{4} \\\ \end{aligned}$$ This is the required trajectory for the system of charges in the given magnetic field. **Hence, the correct answer is option B.** **Note:** We are told in the question that the two particles are free to move in the y-direction, but not in other directions. This is why we haven’t considered the change in the radius of circular motion along the x-direction for the final equation of the trajectory.