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Question: A current source with i = 2t (t is in sec, i is in amp) is connected to a coil of self inductance 1H...

A current source with i = 2t (t is in sec, i is in amp) is connected to a coil of self inductance 1H. Coil of self inductively coupled to the second coil of self inductance 4H. What is the current (in A) in 3Ω\Omega resistance at t = 8/3 ln2 sec. The flux linkage is complete.

Answer

i_R=\frac{4}{3}\Bigl(1-2^{-\frac{16}{3}}\Bigr),\text{A}

Explanation

Solution

We first note that the complete coupling (i.e. coupling coefficient k=1k=1) means that the entire flux produced by the first (primary) coil links the second (secondary) coil. (For NCERT texts, see “Electromagnetic Induction” in Class 12 Physics.) In what follows we use transformer ideas.

Let's denote:

• The primary coil has L1=1HL_1 = 1\,\text{H} and the secondary coil has L2=4HL_2 = 4\,\text{H}.

• Because the coils are completely coupled the mutual inductance is

M=L1L2=14=2H.M=\sqrt{L_1L_2}=\sqrt{1\cdot4}=2\,\text{H}.

• The current source supplies

is(t)=2t(in A, with t in sec).i_s(t)=2t\quad (\text{in A, with } t\text{ in sec}).

In the given circuit the current source is connected in such a way that the branch containing the coil of 1H1\,\text{H} is excited by this source. (A 2Ω\Omega resistor is present in the other parallel branch but it does not link flux; as a consequence the flux in the core is produced only by the current in the 1H1\,\text{H} branch.)

Thus we take the current in the primary coil to be

i1(t)=2t1+e2t,i_1(t)=2t-1+e^{-2t}\,,

which follows from doing the usual circuit analysis (using KCL and the inductor “voltage–current” relation v=Ldi/dtv=L\,di/dt for the parallel branches). (For a detailed derivation one writes for the node voltage vv across the two parallel branches:

i1(t)through L1+v2through 2Ω=2t,\underbrace{i_1(t)}_{\text{through }L_1} + \underbrace{\frac{v}{2}}_{\text{through }2\Omega} = 2t\,,

with v=L1di1dtv=L_1\frac{di_1}{dt}. Solving 12di1dt+i1=2t\frac{1}{2}\frac{di_1}{dt}+i_1=2t with i1(0)=0i_1(0)=0 gives the above expression.)

The key point is that the flux produced by the 1H1\,\text{H} coil (primary) is

ϕ1=L1i1(t),\phi_1=L_1 i_1(t),

and the voltage induced in the secondary (due to mutual coupling) is given by

v2=Mdi1dt.v_2=-M\frac{di_1}{dt}.

(Here the negative sign is due to Lenz’s law; however when we are asked for the “current” we take the magnitude.)

Differentiate i1(t)i_1(t):

di1dt=ddt(2t1+e2t)=22e2t.\frac{di_1}{dt}=\frac{d}{dt}\Bigl(2t-1+e^{-2t}\Bigr)=2-2e^{-2t}.

Thus the induced voltage in the secondary is

v2=2(22e2t)=4(1e2t).v_2= -2\Bigl(2-2e^{-2t}\Bigr)=-4(1-e^{-2t}).

Since the secondary circuit has the 4H4\,\text{H} coil in parallel with a 3Ω3\Omega resistor, the same voltage appears across both. (The secondary coil’s own induced current will be determined by its inductive effects, but the resistor “sees” the voltage directly.) Therefore the current in the 3Ω3\Omega resistor is given by

iR(t)=v23=4(1e2t)3.i_{R}(t)=\frac{v_2}{3}=\frac{-4(1-e^{-2t})}{3}.

Taking the magnitude (if only magnitude is required) we have

iR(t)=43(1e2t).i_{R}(t)=\frac{4}{3}\Bigl(1-e^{-2t}\Bigr).

Finally, plug in the given time

t=83ln2.t=\frac{8}{3}\ln2.

Then

e2t=e283ln2=e163ln2=2163.e^{-2t}=e^{-2\cdot\frac{8}{3}\ln2}=e^{-\frac{16}{3}\ln2}=2^{-\frac{16}{3}}.

Thus, the resistor current is

iR=43(12163)A.i_R=\frac{4}{3}\Bigl(1-2^{-\frac{16}{3}}\Bigr)\,\,\text{A}.

Minimal Explanation of Core Steps

  1. Find mutual inductance:
    M=14=2HM=\sqrt{1\cdot4}=2\,\text{H}.

  2. Determine induced voltage in the secondary:
    v2=Mdi1dtv_2 = -M\frac{di_1}{dt} with di1dt=22e2t\frac{di_1}{dt}=2-2e^{-2t} so v2=4(1e2t)v_2=-4(1-e^{-2t}).

  3. Resistor current:
    iR=v23=43(1e2t)i_R = \frac{v_2}{3}=\frac{4}{3}(1-e^{-2t}) (taking magnitude).

  4. Evaluate at t=83ln2t=\frac{8}{3}\ln2:
    e2t=216/3e^{-2t}=2^{-16/3} so

    iR=43(12163)A.i_R=\frac{4}{3}\left(1-2^{-\frac{16}{3}}\right)\, \text{A}.