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Question: A current I flows in an infinitely long wire with cross section in the form of a semicircular ring o...

A current I flows in an infinitely long wire with cross section in the form of a semicircular ring of radius R. The magnitude of the magnetic induction along its axis is
A) μ0I2π2R\dfrac{{{\mu _0}I}}{{2{\pi ^2}R}}
B) μ0I2πR\dfrac{{{\mu _0}I}}{{2\pi R}}
C) μ0I4π2R\dfrac{{{\mu _0}I}}{{4{\pi ^2}R}}
D) μ0Iπ2R\dfrac{{{\mu _0}I}}{{{\pi ^2}R}}

Explanation

Solution

Hint: In this question use the method of integration and take dldl as the small length of the infinitely long wire also remember to take the help diagram using the given information, using these instructions will help you to approach towards the solution.

Complete step-by-step answer:
According to the given information we have an infinite wire with a cross section in the form of a semicircular ring with radius R.
Since we know that II is the current flowing through the wire
Let dθd\theta be the small angle from the center of the semicircle

So since wire have cross section in shape of semicircle it means
Amount of current flowing through angle π\pi is equal to II
π\pi = II
So in 1 radian current will be = Iπ\dfrac{I}{\pi }
Therefore current flowing through dθ\theta will be
d$$$I$$ = \dfrac{I}{\pi }d\theta NowletdBbethemagneticfieldappliedby Now let dB be the magnetic field applied byd \theta Sinceformulaofmagneticfieldisgivenby Since formula of magnetic field is given byB = \dfrac{{{\mu _0}I}}{{2\pi r}}Thereforethemagneticfieldby Therefore the magnetic field byd \theta willbegivenaswill be given as dB = \dfrac{{{\mu _0}dI}}{{2\pi r}}Substitutingthevalueofdiintheaboveequationweget Substituting the value of di in the above equation we get dB = $μ02πr×Iπdθ\dfrac{{{\mu _0}}}{{2\pi r}} \times \dfrac{I}{\pi }d\theta
We know that the magnetic field created by the dθd\theta will be perpendicular to the elementary part of length so let’s find the component of magnetic field which is applying magnetic field along it axis as shown in figure given below

So since as shown in the above diagram that only dBsinθdB sin\theta is the component that is applying magnetic field along the axis of wire therefore
dBsinθdB sin\theta = magnetic field along the axis of wire = μ02π2r×Isinθdθ\dfrac{{{\mu _0}}}{{2{\pi ^2}r}} \times I\sin \theta d\theta
Let dBsinθdB sin\theta be B magnetic field along axis of wire
Therefore B=B = μ02π2r×Isinθdθ\dfrac{{{\mu _0}}}{{2{\pi ^2}r}} \times I\sin \theta d\theta
Integrating from 0 to π\pi in the above equation,
B=B = 0πμ02π2r×Isinθdθ\int\limits_0^\pi {\dfrac{{{\mu _0}}}{{2{\pi ^2}r}} \times I\sin \theta d\theta }
Separating constants from the above equations
B=B = μ0I2π2r0πsinθdθ\dfrac{{{\mu _0}I}}{{2{\pi ^2}r}}\int\limits_0^\pi {\sin \theta d\theta }
Since we know that sinθ=cosθ\int {\sin \theta } = - \cos \theta
Therefore B = $$$\dfrac{{{\mu _0}I}}{{2{\pi ^2}r}}\left[ { - \cos \theta } \right]_0^\pi $$ \Rightarrow B = \dfrac{{{\mu _0}I}}{{2{\pi ^2}r}}\left[ { - \left( {\cos \pi - \cos 0} \right)} \right]$$ Since we know that $\cos \pi = - 1$ and $\cos 0 = 1$therefore we get $B = \dfrac{{{\mu _0}I}}{{2{\pi ^2}r}}\left[ { - \left( { - 1 - 1} \right)} \right] $ \Rightarrow $ $B = $$$\dfrac{{{\mu _0}I}}{{2{\pi ^2}r}} \times 2
\Rightarrow B=B = μ0Iπ2r\dfrac{{{\mu _0}I}}{{{\pi ^2}r}}

So the magnetic induction along the axis of wire is μ0Iπ2r\dfrac{{{\mu _0}I}}{{{\pi ^2}r}}.

Hence option D is the correct option.

Note: The concept of magnetic induction that we used in the above solution can be explained as it is an electromagnetic force that is generated across an electric conductor when the magnetic field is changed across the conductor. The magnetic induction occurs until the change in magnetic field across is maintained the more change in rate of magnetic field across the conductor the more magnetic induction occurs.