Question
Gynaecology and Obstetrics Question on Gynecology
A 28-year-old woman with a history of multiple sexual partners presents with lower abdominal pain for 1 month. She experiences minimal discharge and complaints of intermenstrual bleeding. What is the most likely cause ?
A
Herpes simplex
B
Genital tuberculosis
C
Candida
D
Neisseria gonorrhoea
Answer
Genital tuberculosis
Explanation
Solution
The correct option is (B): Genital tuberculosis