Question
Gynaecology and Obstetrics Question on Obstetrics
A 27-year-old pregnant G3P2L2 woman presents to you at 36+6 weeks. Ultrasound is done and shows the fetus is in a transverse lie. The liquor is adequate, the placenta is normal, and she has no risk factors. Both her previous deliveries were normal vaginal deliveries. How will you manage this patient?
A
Cesarean section
B
External cephalic version
C
Expectant management
D
Induction of labor
Answer
External cephalic version
Explanation
Solution
The correct option is (B): External cephalic version