Question
Question: Let $I_1 = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} e^{x^2} dx, I_2 = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} e^x dx, I_3 = \int_0^{\fr...
Let I1=∫04πex2dx,I2=∫04πexdx,I3=∫04πex2⋅cosxdx,I4=∫04πex2⋅sinxdx, then:

I1>I2>I3>I4
I2>I3>I4>I1
I3>I4>I1>I2
I2>I1>I3>I4
I_2 > I_1 > I_3 > I_4
Solution
To compare the four given definite integrals, we will analyze their integrands over the interval of integration [0,4π].
The integrals are:
- I1=∫04πex2dx
- I2=∫04πexdx
- I3=∫04πex2⋅cosxdx
- I4=∫04πex2⋅sinxdx
The interval of integration is [0,4π]. Note that 4π≈0.785, which is less than 1.
Step 1: Comparing I1 and I2
For x∈(0,4π], we have x2<x (since x<1).
Since the exponential function et is strictly increasing, if a<b, then ea<eb.
Therefore, for x∈(0,4π], ex2<ex.
By the property of definite integrals, if f(x)<g(x) over an interval, then ∫f(x)dx<∫g(x)dx.
So, ∫04πex2dx<∫04πexdx, which means I1<I2.
Step 2: Comparing I1 and I3
For x∈(0,4π], we know that cosx<1. (At x=0, cos0=1, but for any x>0 in the interval, cosx<1).
Since ex2 is always positive, multiplying both sides of cosx<1 by ex2 gives:
ex2⋅cosx<ex2.
Therefore, ∫04πex2⋅cosxdx<∫04πex2dx, which means I3<I1.
Step 3: Comparing I3 and I4
For x∈(0,4π), we know that cosx>sinx. (At x=0, cos0=1 and sin0=0. At x=4π, cos4π=sin4π=21. The strict inequality cosx>sinx holds for x∈(0,4π)).
Since ex2 is always positive, multiplying both sides of cosx>sinx by ex2 gives:
ex2⋅cosx>ex2⋅sinx.
Therefore, ∫04πex2⋅cosxdx>∫04πex2⋅sinxdx, which means I3>I4.
Step 4: Combining the inequalities
From Step 1, we have I2>I1.
From Step 2, we have I1>I3.
From Step 3, we have I3>I4.
Combining these inequalities, we get the final order:
I2>I1>I3>I4.
Comparing this with the given options, option (D) matches our result.