Question
Question: The statement $[(p \rightarrow q) \land \sim q] \rightarrow r$ is a tautology, when is equivalent to...
The statement [(p→q)∧∼q]→r is a tautology, when is equivalent to [2023]
A
p∧∼q
B
q∨p
C
p∧q
D
∼q
Answer
∼q
Explanation
Solution
-
Rewrite the given implication:
[(p→q)∧∼q]→ris equivalent to(∼p∨q)∧∼q→r. -
Simplify the antecedent:
(∼p∨q)∧∼q=(∼p∧∼q)∨(q∧∼q).Since q∧∼q is always false,
(∼p∨q)∧∼q=∼p∧∼q. -
The implication becomes:
(∼p∧∼q)→rwhich is equivalent to∼(∼p∧∼q)∨r.Using De Morgan's law:
∼(∼p∧∼q)=p∨q.Thus, the statement is:
(p∨q)∨r. -
For the entire statement to be a tautology, the only "critical" case is when the antecedent ∼p∧∼q is true (i.e. when p=F and q=F). In that case, r must be true. Notice though that for q=F, whether p is true or false, r is forced only when both p and q are false. This condition is captured exactly by the option:
∼q.Thus, choosing r=∼q will ensure that whenever q is false (and hence when the antecedent might be true), r will be true, making the implication a tautology.
Explanation (Minimal):
- p→q is equivalent to ∼p∨q.
- (∼p∨q)∧∼q simplifies to ∼p∧∼q.
- (∼p∧∼q)→r must be true in the case p=F and q=F, so r must be true when q is false.
- Hence, r must be equivalent to ∼q.